1/x vs. 1/x2 weighting
Posted: Fri Sep 29, 2006 12:49 pm
To determine the appropriate linear regression weighting factor to employ (if any), I once saw an example where the natural log of instrument response was plotted against the natural log of standard concentration. The slope of this line was then used to determine whether unweighted linear regression, linear regression using a 1/x weighting factor, or linear regression using a 1/x2 weighting factor would be used, according to the following criteria: slope < 0.25 = unweighted; 0.25 < slope < 0.75 = 1/x weighting factor; slope > 0.75 = 1/x2 weighting factor.
It is understandable that in the situation where the slope < 0.25, the variance might be considered sufficiently homogenous to justify the use of unweighted linear regression, and that if the slope of the above-mentioned line were sufficiently large, 1/x2 might be the appropriate weighting factor. However, I can not understand why these specific slope ranges were chosen, or if there is any sort of mathematical justification for them. Can anyone provide any insight? Thanks in advance!
It is understandable that in the situation where the slope < 0.25, the variance might be considered sufficiently homogenous to justify the use of unweighted linear regression, and that if the slope of the above-mentioned line were sufficiently large, 1/x2 might be the appropriate weighting factor. However, I can not understand why these specific slope ranges were chosen, or if there is any sort of mathematical justification for them. Can anyone provide any insight? Thanks in advance!