by
kingm3 » Wed Nov 30, 2005 11:29 am
I am currently transferring an in-process method to our production department. The method states the injection volume is 5µl and the sample should be diluted to approx. 1 mg/ml of the active peak. However, there is a practice in the department to vary injection volume rather than diluting the sample correctly.
I do not agree with this practice but I'm finding it difficult to come up with a convincing arguement

. The instruments are calibrated once a year for accuracy at 50µl. Their arguement is that if I'm using 5µl and not 50µl than why can't they use varying injection volumes from 5-50µl.
If the injection volume is incorrect at 5µl at least it will have the same bias for all injections, not so with varying the volume. Is there any other reason why the injection volume should not be varied during a sample set?
Thanks,
Marion