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Linearity of imps in the presence of main peak - rationale?

Posted: Fri Nov 12, 2010 2:31 pm
by Rob Burgess
One of our SOP's states that it should be done this way. I'm not sure I understand the rationale for this - the impurity peak is very well separated from the main peak so why do in the presence of it?

I presume it might have consequnces for extraction issues - am I on the right lines here? Even so I figure the risk would be negligible in most cases.

Posted: Fri Nov 12, 2010 3:14 pm
by Peter Apps
At a guess I would say that it is order to validate the method under conditions as close to actual practise as possible - there are lots of analyses that look lovely with nice clean standards, and very ugly with real samples.

Peter